Well I really dont want to argue this into infinity, but I dont know that the fact that almost 40% of the people that get the flu have had the flu shot. It is 62 percent effective but does that mean that 28 percent of the folks who get the vaccination get the flu
Bing it would
38% not 28%...correct?
I would think if the flu vaccine is "62% effective",
that would mean it is
38% (almost 40%) ineffective and
for it to be "ineffective" people that took the shot would have
got the flu. What other definition of a flu shot not being effective
could there be?
