Guys, I'm just in law SCHOOL, but I want chime in FWIW. Based on my book lurnin, adverse possession of another's land for the statutory period required by a state is enough to claim possession of the land, and no affidavit is needed. However, if that adverse possessor wants to sale or devise the land, THEN they would need to go to court to quiet the title to that land, which would then allow them to actually get a marketable title in their own name.

Is that right Ewest, at least in a general sense? The biggest thing to remember is that this area is controlled by state law, and the quirks and requirements of one state may not be the same as another state. Also, remember that I am a law STUDENT and am in no way qualified to give any actual legal advice, which is definitely for everyone's benefit at this point.

"Only after sorrow's hand has bowed your head will life become truly real to you; then you will acquire the noble spirituality which intensifies the reality of life. I go to an all-powerful God. Beyond that I have no knowledge--no fear--only faith."